Just talking hypothetical here. Player 2 would have been impacted if Player 1 had nothing and player 3 would have folded with out the losing hand comment, then player 2 wins the hand.In what way is player two being impacted?
Just talking hypothetical here. Player 2 would have been impacted if Player 1 had nothing and player 3 would have folded with out the losing hand comment, then player 2 wins the hand.In what way is player two being impacted?
Thanks for all comments, is there a difference if he was telling the truth and did have the losing hand?
Player 3 was going to fold but based on comment decides to call, this would have impacted player 2. That is why I thought it should be discouraged but no penalty.
I agree with what I think is the consensus, verbal warning the first time, but he wins the pot.
So really, the only infraction is that he went to show his cards prematurely. By accident or design? I suspect the latter based upon the description of the Villain. He probably went so far as to calculate his remark beforehand. But what if he did make a mistake, and his off the cuff smart ass response to the situation fits his personality?
now that was funny!You'd leave and go do yardwork?
This is nonsense though. How do you get to the river AND go all-in without knowing that there obviously are two other people in the pot?Doing this by design just doesn't make sense. If he's trying to target player 3 for a call, why risk exposing the nuts prematurely? For this to be a premeditated angle, it seems to me he has to have a plan to turn the cards face up and then quickly cover them by hands without actually exposing the straight. That seems to risky when it's just easier to keep your cards closed.
His actions just make more sense to me if he honestly doesn't realize player 3 is still in the hand. And then as soon as he realizes it, he figures he should cover the hand just in case and walk back the early exposure with a speech. (I get the second part is the rightful source of controversy.)
This is nonsense though. How do you get to the river AND go all-in without knowing that there obviously are two other people in the pot?
Doing this by design just doesn't make sense. If he's trying to target player 3 for a call, why risk exposing the nuts prematurely? For this to be a premeditated angle, it seems to me he has to have a plan to turn the cards face up and then quickly cover them by hands without actually exposing the straight. That seems to risky when it's just easier to keep your cards closed.
His actions just make more sense to me if he honestly doesn't realize player 3 is still in the hand. And then as soon as he realizes it, he figures he should cover the hand just in case and walk back the early exposure with a speech. (I get the second part is the rightful source of controversy.)
Exclaiming he "was going to show the losing hand" doesn't violate any rule to my knowledge.
Again, player three is left with a binary choice that isn't going to change the outcome of the hand for player two.
What would be our opinions on the subject if Player one had said I have the nuts and Player three folded, only to have nothing? What foul did he commit?
You should always strive to know who's in every pot of course, but I can see mistakes happen on occasion.
This is nonsense though. How do you get to the river AND go all-in without knowing that there obviously are two other people in the pot?
It does impact player two in the situation where player two has player one beat but not player 3. Not the case here with player 1 having the nuts, but what if player 1 was the short stack here? Then he is influencing a side pot. It's enough for me to say a warning is justified and a penalty for repetition. But no where near killing hands.
In this situation there is definitely the possibility that player two can beat player one and not player 3. That very clearly can be undue influence affecting player 2.
He definitely violates tournament rules by merely talking about his hand with more than two players involved. Makes no difference what he says; he cannot attempt to influence action when not heads-up.To your last point. Should player one be punished for lying about his holdings?
Pretty greasy to make that comment AFTER being warned another player has action pending . . . VERY greasy.
How experienced a player is the villain?
He has done some questionable things in the past but nothing this obvious. He normally tries to play it off as oh shucks I don't know what I am doing when people call him out on it. Overall is a good guy but likes to do these types of things.
He definitely violates tournament rules by merely talking about his hand with more than two players involved. Makes no difference what he says; he cannot attempt to influence action when not heads-up.
So yes. Verbal warning for first offense; sit-out penalty for second offense. The rule is there to protect the other players in the hand.
My point is the only action he can influence is player three, who is left with the decision to call or fold. Unlike the alternate scenarios given by the O.P., Justin and myself, player two is unaffected by player threes decision.
Etiquette & Penalties
67: No Disclosure
Players must protect other players in the tournament at all times. Therefore players, whether in the hand or not, must not:
One-player-to-a-hand is in effect. Among other things, this rule prohibits showing a hand to or discussing strategy with another player, advisor, or spectator.
- Discuss contents of live or mucked hands,
- Advise or criticize play at any time,
- Read a hand that hasn’t been tabled.
68: Exposing Cards and Proper Folding
Exposing cards with action pending may result in a penalty but not a dead hand. Any penalty begins at the end of the hand. When folding, cards should be pushed forward low to the table, not deliberately exposed or tossed high (“helicoptered”). See also Rule 66.
I don't find this to be a big offense worthy of a warning. Player three was outplayed, or he was calling in spite of player three's remark. Same as the player above.
But this is only true in this case because we know player 1 has the nuts and player 2 is a loser either way. Given the action only there certainly are scenarios is which player one attempting to influence player 3 impacts player two without knowledge of the hole cards. But player 1 knows that he has the nuts, so the rest is irrelevant. Rulings that make this sort of influence allowable only when holding the nuts leads to problems. That's why I think a warning is in order.
But if we want to make this about TDA rules 67 (part one in particular) and 68 are applicable.
http://www.pokertda.com/view-poker-tda-rules/
So yes, 68 is pretty blantant that penalties may be in order for premature exposure. There's wide latitude for context, and I would tend to warn first.
Did player 1 truly discuss the contents of his hand? No. He had the nuts.
enjoy reading your posts and am glad we can discus this in a thoughtful way.
If I grant your narrower interpretation of 67 part 1 I still say any discussion on the part of player one is out of line and a failure to protect player 2, even though in this case player one happens to have thes.
And really I would say the near pre exposure isself is worthy of a warning. If he had fully exposed the hand he would have grossly damaged player two by providing player three with information player two didn't have.
It's because player 1's actions and comments can influence player 3's action, which may subsequently harm player 2. Dunno how to make it any clearer for ya.
What the players actually had in this particular hand is immaterial. It is because of potential harm to other players in the hand that the rule exists.
How is player two damaged if player one reveals his hand prematurely? He is all-in. Nothing left for him to do.
Player three called. In what way did player one harm the integrity of the game? And is player three scapegoating?