Cash Game Stud Game Bring-In One Chip Rule Interpretation (1 Viewer)

[Moxie Mike]

Scene: $3-$6 FL Dealer's Choice Private Game. Chips in play are in denoms of $1 and $3. I am the host.

Game is Razz. $3 button ante; $1 forced bring-in.

Bring-in falls on the player in the 5 seat (older gentleman named 'Dick') with a turned up on 3rd street. Dick then checks his hole cards and flings single $3 chip from his stack out in front of him. If it matters, he had plenty of both denoms in his stack.

Next to act, I toss a $1 chip into the pot to call, which prompted Dick to assert that his $3 chip was intended to 'complete'.

We all understand that the one-chip-rule constitutes a call. But does the one-chip-rule apply to a bring-in?

Spoiler: How we handled it

Unsure of the correct ruling, I retrieved my $1 chip and replaced it with a $3 chip in the interest of keeping the peace. We also mentioned to Dick that verbalizing your intentions avoids confusion.

Requisite Pr0n:

 

[BGinGA]

The single $3 chip bet is a call of the $1 bring-in bet. No exceptions, unless he verbalized the raise or 'complete'.

 

[Kain8]

A 7 was the bring-in for a Razz hand? And Dick wanted to complete the bet right off the bat?

I'd be chomping at the bit to outplay his ass on the hand to punish his insolence.

 

[Highli99]

A 7 was the bring-in for a Razz hand? And Dick wanted to complete the bet right off the bat?

I'd be chomping at the bit to outplay his ass on the hand to punish his insolence.

I suspect that’s why the call was allowed to stand as a raise. “Don’t tap the glass” and all....

 

[Moxie Mike]

The single $3 chip bet is a call of the $1 bring-in bet. No exceptions, unless he verbalized the raise or 'complete'.

Is the bring-in considered a bet or a call? That's where the confusion came in...

A 7 was the bring-in for a Razz hand? And Dick wanted to complete the bet right off the bat?

We were 5 handed... I don't see anything wrong with open-completing with 7 [A-3] even if everyone else has low cards on 3rd as well - although I'd probably try to raises someone else's complete in that exact situation.

 

[BGinGA]

Is the bring-in considered a bet or a call? That's where the confusion came in...

The bring-in is considered a forced bet. A single over-chip wager (even if by the same person who owes the bring-in amount) is considered to be the forced bet amount, unless otherwise stated.

Had he silently thrown in three $1 chips, that's a complete bet to $3. But a silent single $3 chip is just a $1 bring-in bet.

The reasoning is that allowing the $3 chip to potentially mean something else opens up the possibility of angle-shooting. If everybody folds, he wins, but if somebody calls or raises, he can claim that it was only meant to be a $1 bet.

 

[Jambine]

The single $3 chip bet is a call of the $1 bring-in bet. No exceptions, unless he verbalized the raise or 'complete'.

^That^
Absent any verbal declaration, it's a call. I don't see any controversy

 

[TheBigTater]

Yep, single chip, no verbal declaration...... just a call of the bring-in.