Correct ruling? how would you handle this situation (1 Viewer)

A funny side story:

I did not witness this but some of the group I play with have been playing together for 15+ years. It is a solid group that know what they are doing which makes this even funnier but everybody makes mistakes right. Well there was a $500 buyin multi table tourney prob like 30 to 40 people. The same situation happened that some of the cards ( I believe turn and river) were dealt from the wrong deck. It was a huge hand and 2 people got knocked out of the tournament. There must have been some sort of delay in action because when they finally realized they dealt from the wrong deck the 2 knockouts had already left (n) :thumbsdown:. They continued and I believe the winner gave them back their buyins in good faith or maybe it was taken out of the pot before finished ... something to that effect.

In my cash game It has happened on rare occasion but we caught it right away and have been able to just proceed normally.
 
I'm the big stack (A8o) and get it all in with shorty (A3o) pre-flop. Similar to OP, we are playing with two decks. Dealer has dealt the hole cards from deck A. After the pre-flop action he picks up deck B, deals flop, turn, and river. Shorty makes a wheel and starts collecting chips when dealer realizes his mistake.

At this point we each still have our hole cards and it is easy to reconstruct the pot (because it was a two-way all-in) but I believe the hand is over and the above rule does not apply. However, the dealer re-dealt flop/turn/river using the correct deck and I won.

There's a good argument to be made that it was handled properly.

If the correct deck had been used and an off-color card came up, it would be clear that the deck was fouled, leading to a ruling of misdeal - it's not possible to complete the deal with a fouled deck - it may have other bad cards, may have been missing cards - the decks should be counted down before resuming.

In your case, the wrong deck was initially used, and then discovered... but the original deck had never been fouled, and no betting action took place on fouled cards. I think it's legitimate to complete the hand from the proper deck. I wouldn't even call it a re-deal; the cards off the wrong deck simply don't count.


The first riffle of the shuffle marks the start for a deal.

This applies for a dedicated dealer who shuffles between deals, or when using a single deck. When rotating two decks in play, as for a typical self-dealt game, that rule can't apply - the other deck is usually shuffled before the hand even finishes.

In my game, we don't allow the second deck to be cut ahead of time - it must be cut by someone other than the dealer, immediately before the deal. The cut marks the start of the next hand.
 
Two decks are being used, the board is dealt from the wrong deck and it is not discovered until all cards are mixed, what is the ruling?

Details:
Playing in a Texas Hold'em home tournament last night. Everybody folds to the dealer and he puts in a raise to 200. from the small blind, I look down at AK suited, so I raise it to 500 and the big blind folds. The original raiser (dealer) thinks for like 5 minutes before going all in, I think for a couple of minutes ask for a count and then call, he turns over pocket jacks. Here is where the interesting part comes in. They shuffle behind and the guy that was shuffling behind proceeds to deal out the flop and nobody notices the mistake. The flop comes out J44, giving the original raiser (the correct dealer) a full house and he takes down the pot. They start gathering up the cards and they notice the board was dealt from the wrong deck. Meanwhile the correct deck has been gathered up and cards mixed. There is no way to reconstruct the cards at this point. Only two players in the hand so original chip stacks was easy to determine. What is the correct ruling?

1) Given the incorrect deck was employed only to deal the flop, the hands and betting prior to that are valid.
2) There is no way the alternate deck cards can be accepted. Consider the reaction if the opponents jacks were :jh::js: and the bad-deck flop included also the :jh:.

My solution: I would divide the all-in pot evenly among the two players involved and move on. Lending credence to this is that, pre flop, AK versus JJ is close to a coin toss.
 
1) Given the incorrect deck was employed only to deal the flop, the hands and betting prior to that are valid.
2) There is no way the alternate deck cards can be accepted. Consider the reaction if the opponents jacks were :jh::js: and the bad-deck flop included also the :jh:.

My solution: I would divide the all-in pot evenly among the two players involved and move on. Lending credence to this is that, pre flop, AK versus JJ is close to a coin toss.

No betting action had occurred on the bad cards. When the error is entirely correctable and has not affected the action, I think it's inappropriate to discard the hand.
 
No betting action had occurred on the bad cards. When the error is entirely correctable and has not affected the action, I think it's inappropriate to discard the hand.
My only concern would be the validity of the original deck stub. No real way to determine if those cards are intact.
 
From the description, it sounded to me like they've just been sitting there the whole time. I suppose being there might make it obvious if there's any doubt.
 
From the description, it sounded to me like they've just been sitting there the whole time. I suppose being there might make it obvious if there's any doubt.

Sounds like the muck got mixed in already.

Two decks are being used, the board is Meanwhile the correct deck has been gathered up and cards mixed. There is no way to reconstruct the cards at this point. Only two players in the hand so original chip stacks was easy to determine. What is the correct ruling?
 

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