$10K HORSE Stud Hand (1 Viewer)

jbutler

Royal Flush
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i'm a complete simpleton in stud high and even further ignorant as to tourney strategy, but i found this hand a bit confusing:

four-handed at the final table in the $10k HORSE event, second to last hand in the stud round. Barber is chipleader with 3MM+ and relevant villain is second in chips with approx 1.6MM. third is at about 600k and fourth is approx 300k.

irrelevant villain brings it in with a deuce up and Barber completes with an ace up. villain raises with a J up and bring-in folds. Barber flats.

fourth brings Barber a 3 and villain a K. Barber check-calls. fifth bring Barber a 4 and pairs villain's K. villain bets, Barber calls. sixth brings Barber a 6 and villain an A. villain bets and Barber raises. villain tanks for about 90 seconds and folds.

is this just a standard spot where Barber is always flatting on third with split aces to disguise his hand when stacks are shallow? how does villain fold open kings in this spot if he had any real hand on third?
 
I doubt he's always flatting split aces but it certainly isn't impossible.

More importantly, there's just no way he raises 6th without at least aces up. He has to give villain credit for kings up most of the time. Getting 7-1 is tempting, but a disciplined fold.

It's also possible that villain was restealing against the A (knowing full well that it would likely take him until 5th to pull it off), then when he catches open kings on 5th and still gets called and then raised, the jig is really up.
 

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