Cash Game 7 Card Stud Cash Game (1 Viewer)

Pinball

Full House
Joined
Dec 19, 2014
Messages
2,694
Reaction score
3,374
Location
Eggenwil / Switzerland
Game: 7 Card Stud FL
Players: 8
Min: $25
Max: $100
Ante: 0.10
Bring-In: 0.20
small Bet: 0.50
big Bet: 1.00

how would many chips would give to a player who buys in for a) $25 b) $50 c) $100

The following numbers of chips can be used:

200x 0.10
200x 0.50
200x 2.00
100x 5.00
100x 20.00
50x no denomination
 
As a person who is just starting to spread a limit mixed game, let me attempt to give an answer.

Your ideal chipset for this game would be something like:
100x $0.10
800x $0.50
100x $10

Based on your actual breakdown, here is a suggestion.
$100 Buyin
25x $0.10
25x $0.50
9x $5
2x $20

For smaller buy-ins, give fewer big chips.
$50 Buyin
25x $0.10
25x $0.50
7x $5

$25 Buyin
25x $0.10
25x $0.50
2x $5

The real problem with your breakdown is that the $2 and $5 chip really don't play. The $2 could play in a big bet raise situation... but that is clunky. I really think you need more $0.50 chips.

Another option... that I don't really like is to use the $0.50 and $2 as $0.50 chips... this effectively gives you 200x more $0.50 chips and allows you to use the $2 chips... you can decide if this will cause too much confusion.

Yet another option is to treat all of the chips as $0.50 chips. This will give you a $425 bank, but force you to alter your game a bit. If you go this path, you will have to make your bring-in equal to a small bet. You will have to lose the antes and just do a dealer ante of $1.

None of these options are ideal. Best recommendation is to get more $0.50 chips.
 
As a person who is just starting to spread a limit mixed game, let me attempt to give an answer.

What Limits do you Play? What is your breakdown?

As it looks, my set isnt really great for limit cash game. Yeah, got a reason for a new chip set. :D
 
My limit game is 2/4 with $1 bring in and a $2 dealer ante. First time we played it we had 7 players and I used a chipset with the following breakdown:
150x $1
300x $2
40x $25

This allowed players to buyin $100 and get the following breakfown:
20x $1
40x $2

This worked okay, but the 1 chip / 2 chip structure using the $2 chip was a little clunky. There is s thread about limit breakdowns that discusses this. I will try to link to it later.

I have since purchased a bunch of $1 chips. My current breakdown is:
800x $1
100x $25

I've not played with this set yet, but I think it will be great. The hardcore limit players will say even I'm short on $1s. But I think one rack per person is good for 2/4.

I like the idea of the spread limit game that Ohio suggested. That will allow you to get the $2 in play.
 
My limit game is 2/4 with $1 bring in and a $2 dealer ante. First time we played it we had 7 players and I used a chipset with the following breakdown:
150x $1
300x $2
40x $25
................

For a 2/4 limit game you don't really need $2 chips. Need lots of $1 and $5 with a few $25 chips.
We play a lot of 2/4 stud (and 2/4 hold-em). Most buy in for $100 (50 ea. $1 and 10 ea. $5)
Stud, dealer ante $1 with a $1 bring in
 
Here is that thread mentioned before... within it, there are links to other threads.
http://www.pokerchipforum.com/threads/limit-cash-set-breakdown.12952/

Regarding increasing your limit to:
Ante: 0.50
Bring-In: 0.50
small Bet: 1.00
big Bet: 2.00

and your breakdown of
200x 0.10
200x 0.50
200x 2.00
100x 5.00
100x 20.00

Now I would say you are primarily trying to use the $0.5, $2, and $20. You want to get all of the $0.5 and $2 on the table.
$100 Buyin (players 1-6)
32x $0.50
32x $2
2x $20

After the first 6 buy-ins, you have 8x $0.50 and 8x $2 left = $20. Buy player 7 and 8 in with that $20 and the rest in $20 chips. with 8 players, you will average 25x $0.50 and 25x $2 per player. That amounts to $12.50 and $50 respectively. Obviously if players buy in for less, give them fewer $20. You goal should be to get all of the $0.50 and $2 on the table quickly.

I think this is workable. It is similar to what I did for my game, but you are using way more $0.50 (for antes and small bets) than I used of $1. I think you will feel short on $0.50. I suggest you eliminate the $0.50 per player ante and change it to a $2 dealer ante. This will free up a lot of $0.50 chips to use for the $1 bets.
 
For a 2/4 limit game you don't really need $2 chips. Need lots of $1 and $5 with a few $25 chips.
We play a lot of 2/4 stud (and 2/4 hold-em). Most buy in for $100 (50 ea. $1 and 10 ea. $5)
Stud, dealer ante $1 with a $1 bring in

I concur. The initial game was primarily to see if my players were interested in limit HORSE. They were. Then I knew I should invest in more ones. My current set is:

My current breakdown is:
800x $1
100x $25
 
For my 2/4 limit game I have 1200 $1s and a rack of $20s. I'd like to have 1600 $1s for 8 players (2 racks ea) but 1200 works.

For stud games we have a $2 dealer ante, which eliminates the need for fracs.
 
@Shaggy , this is great information and answers some of my questions too...

I also have a limit set of 900 x $1's and 100 x $25's...

This set easily supports a $2/$4 Limit Hold'em game, allowing a full rack of $1's to 8 players with some to spare, $100 buy-in (meeting the 25 big bet standard). And because this is a 2 chip / 4 chip structure, the $1's also allow the ability to post the $1 small blind, 2 chips for the small bet, and 4 chips for the big bet.

But I want to introduce 7 card stud like you and @Pinball , and had questions on how to do that with this same 2 denomination set (not using quarters).

1) Are you doing the dealer ante of $2 so that you don't require every player to ante something much smaller like 25c or 50c, avoiding the need for fracs (I hope so)? A $2 dealer ante equates to the same amount if all 8 players were to ante a quarter which is perfect. You just have to deal with people potentially missing a deal. Anything other issues you encounter with this $2 dealer ante concept?

2) The $1 bring in bet in stud essentially acts like the small blind, meaning it is a forced bet, but in this case you don't know who is going to be first to act until the first up card is dealt, so you assign the bring in bet to the player with the lowest card showing? And what if that player wants to fold? Is it simply the player that is first to act is the player that pays the bring in or is it the player with the lowest card dealt face up regardless of whether they decide to play the hand or not? And once the bring in is payed, the next player to act would still need to raise to the $2 small bet minimum? Trying to understand the details of the bring in.

2A) would you ever forgo the $1 bring in and just have the player with the highest up card lead the betting with the standard $2 small bet (or check)? So essentially no forced bet.

3) If you apply a limit betting structure to 7 card stud, and there are 5 betting rounds instead of the 4 you have with hold'em, do you have the 1st 2 betting rounds represent the small bet and the last 3 betting rounds represent the big bet or vice versa?

I think these are my 3 main questions regarding 7 card stud.

Thanks,
 
1. It's just easier to have the dealer ante. That way you don't have to wait for everyone to ante or argue over who didn't ante.

2. The bring in is a forced bet (they can't fold). The lowest up card is the bring-in. The player left of the bring-in can either call the $1, complete to the minimum bet or raise.

2A. I've played stud this way and it's perfectly fine. It's up to you.

3. The first two betting rounds are the low denom The rest are the high denom bets.
 
Thanks for your replies. Everything makes sense except one thing. I'm surprised the player to the left can call the $1 bring in. Is this call just limited to the 1 player to the left, and everyone else acting has to pay the $2 minimum bet, which would essentially act as two blind positions? If not, and everyone could call the $1 bring in, you would never reach the minimum $2 bet on the first betting round.
 
Thanks for your replies. Everything makes sense except one thing. I'm surprised the player to the left can call the $1 bring in. Is this call just limited to the 1 player to the left, and everyone else acting has to pay the $2 minimum bet, which would essentially act as two blind positions? If not, and everyone could call the $1 bring in, you would never reach the minimum $2 bet on the first betting round.

Everyone can call the $1 bring in bet. It rarely happens but could.
 
If someone wanted to raise, and only the $1 bring in bet was on the table, are they raising to $2, or are they raising to $4?

Player A brings in for $1. Player B can either call $1 or complete to $2. Once the small bet has been completed to $2, Player C can raise to $4.

Think of the bring-in as a discounted small bet. Sometimes it gets completed, and sometimes it doesn't.

I like the dealer ante because we don't have to waste time figuring out who didn't ante when the antes come up short. If a player steps away, we put a "missed blind" button at that player's seat.
 
Player A brings in for $1. Player B can either call $1 or complete to $2. Once the small bet has been completed to $2, Player C can raise to $4.

Think of the bring-in as a discounted small bet. Sometimes it gets completed, and sometimes it doesn't.

I like the dealer ante because we don't have to waste time figuring out who didn't ante when the antes come up short. If a player steps away, we put a "missed blind" button at that player's seat.
So the bring in bet ($1) needs to be completed ($2) before a player can raise ($4).
 
Never mind, I see that you already answered this question. Thank you for all of these insights.
 
My experience is the same as ohio. A player can raise if someone has not yet completed. Here is a link I found that doesn't directly state it, but seems to support this stance. Specifically item 3 and 6:
http://www.wsop.com/poker-games/7card-stud/rules/

edit: I just logged into pokerstars to see how they deal it. The player to my right had the bring in... they brought in (not called or raised). I had the option to "call" the bring-in amount or "raise" to the small bet amount. I did not have the option to raise to the first raise amount. This is consistent with what Abby described. i.e. the bet must first be completed to the 1-bet amount before it can be 2-betted.
 
Last edited:
I imagine you could play either way.

I've just never played in a stud game where it had to be completed before you could raise.

I poked around the internet (where else?) and found a lot of ambiguous betting rules for 7-card stud, including RROP and WSOP. I only found one unambiguous site where the rule is as I described, and no sites where the rule is as @ohio3302016 describes.

Mason Malmuth's article "Fundamentals of Poker - Seven Card Stud" on 2+2 is consistent with the procedure that I mentioned. My only quibble with this article is that Malmuth refers to the completion as a raise. However, all the sites seem to agree that completing a bet does not count as a raise when the number of raises is capped.

Edit: Also "7 Card Rules and Game Play" on pokerlistings.com. Same rule as described by Malmuth.
 
Last edited:
We play 50¢/$1 stud (among other games). To keep it simple we just do quarter antes and quarter bring in. I have 1500 quarters and 200 $5.
 
Here is that thread mentioned before... within it, there are links to other threads.
http://www.pokerchipforum.com/threads/limit-cash-set-breakdown.12952/

Regarding increasing your limit to:


and your breakdown of


Now I would say you are primarily trying to use the $0.5, $2, and $20. You want to get all of the $0.5 and $2 on the table.
$100 Buyin (players 1-6)
32x $0.50
32x $2
2x $20

After the first 6 buy-ins, you have 8x $0.50 and 8x $2 left = $20. Buy player 7 and 8 in with that $20 and the rest in $20 chips. with 8 players, you will average 25x $0.50 and 25x $2 per player. That amounts to $12.50 and $50 respectively. Obviously if players buy in for less, give them fewer $20. You goal should be to get all of the $0.50 and $2 on the table quickly.

I think this is workable. It is similar to what I did for my game, but you are using way more $0.50 (for antes and small bets) than I used of $1. I think you will feel short on $0.50. I suggest you eliminate the $0.50 per player ante and change it to a $2 dealer ante. This will free up a lot of $0.50 chips to use for the $1 bets.

I could also use the 0.10 as 1$
 
You could also disregard the denominations on all of your chips and let cash play for rebuys (unless you have another set with a chip that's distinctly different from this set, in which case you could use those for your higher-denomination chip).
 

Create an account or login to comment

You must be a member in order to leave a comment

Create account

Create an account and join our community. It's easy!

Log in

Already have an account? Log in here.

Back
Top Bottom